I did a bit more reading though and I guess as capital monopolizes everything, money changes hands less often when one corporation owns hundreds of companies, so that kinda takes the velocity of money out of the equation
Is what you describe not just a cause of decreasing velocity? Why does that mean it’s no longer relevant to the discussion of the tendency to the rate of profit to fall?
I think that velocity is mostly irrelevant or at least has no causal relationship with the TRPTF. Because it’s just the organic composition of capital which changes, because less money switches hands through labour purchase and more for fixed capital. Hoarding is more likely, but that’s secondary.
But there could be other interactions I’m not thinking of, so I’d be curious what made you want to ask first?
How does this work with the velocity of money
Can you elaborate how these two need further explanation together? I’m familiar enough with both concepts, but not sure what your question is
Idk I’m kinda dumb
I did a bit more reading though and I guess as capital monopolizes everything, money changes hands less often when one corporation owns hundreds of companies, so that kinda takes the velocity of money out of the equation
It can be confusing, no shame in asking.
Is what you describe not just a cause of decreasing velocity? Why does that mean it’s no longer relevant to the discussion of the tendency to the rate of profit to fall?
I think that velocity is mostly irrelevant or at least has no causal relationship with the TRPTF. Because it’s just the organic composition of capital which changes, because less money switches hands through labour purchase and more for fixed capital. Hoarding is more likely, but that’s secondary.
But there could be other interactions I’m not thinking of, so I’d be curious what made you want to ask first?