I’ve seen said (but have not investigated whatsoever so please take this with a grain of salt) that although it was criminalized it was rarely enforced because there was a duty to demonstrate the social harm of a specific action and that was rarely “met” in court or something to that effect. Is there any truth in this or is it just cope?
I’ve seen said (but have not investigated whatsoever so please take this with a grain of salt) that although it was criminalized it was rarely enforced because there was a duty to demonstrate the social harm of a specific action and that was rarely “met” in court or something to that effect. Is there any truth in this or is it just cope?